Having bought identical garlic breads for my wife and myself, I proposed that we should equally share one immediately and equally share the second later. She was unhappy with this, proposing that she eat half of hers and that I eat half of mine. When I suggested that half garlic breads should be fungible, she accused me of making the word up. Assuming that garlic breads could be exactly shared equally, had I been correctly using established economic terminology?
Hungry Chris, Teesside
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